I did not experience hypomanic symptoms until I started taking anti-depressants. Anti-depressants didn’t work for me – they either didn’t work or they revved me up. Mood stabilizers helped my depression. I was therefore diagnosed as Bipolar II – is it really Bipolar II?
Bipolar disorder usually fits into one of the following five categories:
Based solely on what you describe in your question, you may or may not actually have bipolar disorder. This is what my co-author and I have referred to as “diagnosis by prescription.” Antidepressants can cause hypomania or mania and it is simply a side effect – not an indication of another disease. Not responding to antidepressants but responding to mood stabilizers suggests bipolar disorder, but not necessarily. Since both of these factors exist for you, the possibility that it is Bipolar II is certainly elevated, but you might consider a second opinion or simply bring this question to your prescriber for a full discussion.
You should be aware, however, that if you do, in fact, have Bipolar II, your diagnosis could change to Bipolar I if you were to experience a full-blown manic episode that cannot be attributed to something else, such as an antidepressant or some other illness.
From Psych Central's World of Psychology:
Catherine Zeta Jones: Bipolar I vs. Bipolar II | World of Psychology (April 14, 2011)
From Psych Central's website:
Catherine Zeta Jones: Bipolar I vs. Bipolar II – PsychCentral.com (blog) | Watch News Online (April 14, 2011)
From Psych Central's website:
Catherine Zeta Jones: Bipolar I vs. Bipolar II – PsychCentral.com (blog) | Smart US News Today (April 14, 2011)
From Psych Central's website:
Catherine Zeta Jones: Bipolar I vs. Bipolar II – PsychCentral.com (blog) | Talk Trends (April 14, 2011)
Last reviewed: 27 Mar 2009